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NEW QUESTION # 117
A small bank is evaluating different methods to address and resolve the following requirements
" Must be able to store credit card data using the smallest amount of data possible
* Must be compliant with PCI DSS
* Must maintain confidentiality if one piece of the layer is compromised Which of the following is the best solution for the bank?
- A. Masking
- B. Homomorphic encryption
- C. Scrubbing
- D. Tokenization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Tokenization is the process of replacing sensitive data, like credit card numbers, with unique identification symbols (tokens) that retain all the essential information without compromising its security. This method is compliant with PCI DSS requirements as it ensures that actual credit card data is not stored or processed, thus minimizing the risk of data breaches. Tokenization also maintains confidentiality even if part of the data handling system is compromised, as the tokens do not hold any exploitable data.
NEW QUESTION # 118
An organization's finance system was recently attacked. A forensic analyst is reviewing the contents of the compromised files for credit card data. Which of the following commands should the analyst run to BEST determine whether financial data was lost?
- A. Option B
- B. Option A
- C. Option D
- D. Option C
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 119
A product development team has submitted code snippets for review prior to release.
INSTRUCTIONS
Analyze the code snippets, and then select one vulnerability, and one fix for each code snippet.
Code Snippet 1
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 1:
SQL injection
Cross-site request forgery
Server-side request forgery
Indirect object reference
Cross-site scripting
Fix 1:
Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Perform output encoding of queryResponse,
Ensure usex:ia belongs to logged-in user.
Inspect URLS and disallow arbitrary requests.
Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Vulnerability 2
1) Denial of service
2) Command injection
3) SQL injection
4) Authorization bypass
5) Credentials passed via GET
Fix 2
A) Implement prepared statements and bind
variables.
B) Remove the serve_forever instruction.
C) Prevent the "authenticated" value from being overridden by a GET parameter.
D) HTTP POST should be used for sensitive parameters.
E) Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer below in Explanation
Explanation:
Code Snippet 1
Vulnerability 1: SQL injection
SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that interacts with a database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL commands into the input fields, such as username or password, and execute them on the database server. This can result in data theft, data corruption, or unauthorized access.
Fix 1: Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Input sanitization is a technique that prevents SQL injection by validating and filtering the user input values before passing them to the database. The input sanitization should remove any special characters, such as quotes, semicolons, or dashes, that can alter the intended SQL query. Alternatively, the input sanitization can use a whitelist of allowed values and reject any other values.
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 2: Cross-site request forgery
Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that handles web requests. An attacker can trick a user into sending a malicious web request to a server that performs an action on behalf of the user, such as changing their password, transferring funds, or deleting dat a. This can result in unauthorized actions, data loss, or account compromise.
Fix 2: Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Anti-forgery tokens are techniques that prevent CSRF by adding a unique and secret value to each web request that is generated by the server and verified by the server before performing the action. The anti-forgery token should be different for each user and each session, and should not be predictable or reusable by an attacker. This way, only legitimate web requests from the user's browser can be accepted by the server.
NEW QUESTION # 120
A security analyst is trying to identify the source of a recent data loss incident. The analyst has reviewed all the for the time surrounding the identified all the assets on the network at the time of the data loss. The analyst suspects the key to finding the source was obfuscated in an application. Which of the following tools should the analyst use NEXT?
- A. Software Decomplier
- B. Static code analysis
- C. Log reduction and analysis tool
- D. Network enurrerator
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 121
Ransomware encrypted the entire human resources fileshare for a large financial institution. Security operations personnel were unaware of the activity until it was too late to stop it. The restoration will take approximately four hours, and the last backup occurred 48 hours ago. The management team has indicated that the RPO for a disaster recovery event for this data classification is 24 hours.
Based on RPO requirements, which of the following recommendations should the management team make?
- A. Leave the current backup schedule intact and pay the ransom to decrypt the data.
- B. Increase the frequency of backups and create SIEM alerts for IOCs.
- C. Leave the current backup schedule intact and make the human resources fileshare read-only.
- D. Decrease the frequency of backups and pay the ransom to decrypt the data.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Increasing the frequency of backups and creating SIEM (security information and event management) alerts for IOCs (indicators of compromise) are the best recommendations that the management team can make based on RPO (recovery point objective) requirements. RPO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss that can occur during a disaster recovery event. Increasing the frequency of backups can reduce the amount of data loss that can occur, as it can create more recent copies or snapshots of the data. Creating SIEM alerts for IOCs can help detect and respond to ransomware attacks, as it can collect, correlate, and analyze security events and data from various sources and generate alerts based on predefined rules or thresholds. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as encourage more ransomware attacks or expose the company to legal or ethical issues. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and making the human resources fileshare read-only are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as affect the normal operations or functionality of the fileshare. Decreasing the frequency of backups and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as increase the risk of losing data due to less frequent backups or unreliable decryption. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rpo https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 122
As part of its risk strategy, a company is considering buying insurance for cybersecurity incidents.
Which of the following BEST describes this kind of risk response?
- A. Risk transference
- B. Risk mitigation
- C. Risk avoidance
- D. Risk rejection
Answer: A
Explanation:
When you're buying insurance, you are transferring the risk.
NEW QUESTION # 123
A mobile application developer is creating a global, highly scalable, secure chat application. The developer would like to ensure the application is not susceptible to on-path attacks while the user is traveling in potentially hostile regions. Which of the following would BEST achieve that goal?
- A. Configure certificate pinning inside the application.
- B. Deploy client certificates to all devices in the network.
- C. Utilize the SAN certificate to enable a single certificate for all regions.
- D. Enable HSTS on the application's server side for all communication.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Certificate pinning is a technique that embeds one or more trusted certificates or public keys inside an application, and verifies that any certificate presented by a server matches one of those certificates or public keys. Certificate pinning can prevent on-path attacks, such as man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks, which intercept and modify the communication between a client and a server.
Configuring certificate pinning inside the application would allow the mobile application developer to create a global, highly scalable, secure chat application that is not susceptible to on-path attacks while the user is traveling in potentially hostile regions, because it would:
Ensure that only trusted servers can communicate with the application, by rejecting any server certificate that does not match one of the pinned certificates or public keys.
Protect the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of the chat messages, by preventing any attacker from intercepting, modifying, or impersonating them.
Enhance the security of the application by reducing its reliance on external factors, such as certificate authorities (CAs), certificate revocation lists (CRLs), or online certificate status protocol (OCSP).
NEW QUESTION # 124
A security engineer needs to recommend a solution that will meet the following requirements:
Identify sensitive data in the provider's network
Maintain compliance with company and regulatory guidelines
Detect and respond to insider threats, privileged user threats, and compromised accounts Enforce datacentric security, such as encryption, tokenization, and access control Which of the following solutions should the security engineer recommend to address these requirements?
- A. SWG
- B. WAF
- C. DLP
- D. CASB
Answer: C
Explanation:
DLP (data loss prevention) is a solution that can meet the following requirements: identify sensitive data in the provider's network, maintain compliance with company and regulatory guidelines, detect and respond to insider threats, privileged user threats, and compromised accounts, and enforce data-centric security, such as encryption, tokenization, and access control. DLP can monitor, classify, and protect data in motion, at rest, or in use, and prevent unauthorized disclosure or exfiltration. WAF (web application firewall) is a solution that can protect web applications from common attacks, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting, but it does not address the requirements listed. CASB (cloud access security broker) is a solution that can enforce policies and controls for accessing cloud services and applications, but it does not address the requirements listed. SWG (secure web gateway) is a solution that can monitor and filter web traffic to prevent malicious or unauthorized access, but it does not address the requirements listed. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guid
NEW QUESTION # 125
An energy company is required to report the average pressure of natural gas used over the past quarter. A PLC sends data to a historian server that creates the required reports.
Which of the following historian server locations will allow the business to get the required reports in an and IT environment?
- A. Use a screened subnet between the and IT environments.
- B. In the environment, allow IT traffic into the environment.
- C. In the environment, use a VPN from the IT environment into the environment.
- D. In the IT environment, allow PLCs to send data from the environment to the IT environment.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 126
The Chief information Officer (CIO) of a large bank, which uses multiple third-party organizations to deliver a service, is concerned about the handling and security of customer data by the parties. Which of the following should be implemented to BEST manage the risk?
- A. Establish a team using members from first line risk, the business unit, and vendor management to assess only design security controls of all suppliers. Store findings from the reviews in a database for all other business units and risk teams to reference.
- B. Establish a governance program that rates suppliers based on their access to data, the type of data, and how they access the data Assign key controls that are reviewed and managed based on the supplier's rating. Report finding units that rely on the suppliers and the various risk teams.
- C. Establish an audit program that regularly reviews all suppliers regardless of the data they access, how they access the data, and the type of data, Review all design andoperational controls based on best practice standard and report the finding back to upper management.
- D. Establish a review committee that assesses the importance of suppliers and ranks them according to contract renewals. At the time of contract renewal, incorporate designs and operational controls into the contracts and a right-to-audit clause. Regularly assess the supplier's post-contract renewal with a dedicated risk management team.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A governance program that rates suppliers based on their access to data, the type of data, and how they access the data is the best way to manage the risk of handling and security of customer data by third parties. This allows the company to assign key controls that are reviewed and managed based on the supplier's rating and report findings to the relevant units and risk teams. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide
,https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2018/volume-1/third-party-risk-management
NEW QUESTION # 127
Several days after deploying an MDM for smartphone control, an organization began noticing anomalous behavior across the enterprise Security analysts observed the following:
- Unauthorized certificate issuance
- Access to mutually authenticated resources utilizing valid but
unauthorized certificates
- Granted access to internal resources via the SSL VPN
To address the immediate problem security analysts revoked the erroneous certificates.
Which of the following describes the MOST likely root cause of the problem and offers a solution?
- A. The VPN and web resources are configured with too weak a cipher suite and should be rekeyed to support AES 256 in GCM and ECC for digital signatures and key exchange
- B. A managed mobile device is rooted exposing its keystore and the MDM should be reconfigured to wipe these devices and disallow access to corporate resources
- C. The CA is configured to sign any received CSR from mobile users and should be reconfigured to permit CSR signings only from domain administrators.
- D. SCEP is configured insecurely which should be enabled for device onboarding against a PKI for mobile-exclusive use
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 128
An energy company is required to report the average pressure of natural gas used over the past quarter. A PLC sends data to a historian server that creates the required reports.
Which of the following historian server locations will allow the business to get the required reports in anOTand IT environment?
- A. Use a screened subnet between theOTand IT environments.
- B. In theOTenvironment, allow IT traffic into theOTenvironment.
- C. In theOTenvironment, use a VPN from the IT environment into theOTenvironment.
- D. In the IT environment, allow PLCs to send data from theOTenvironment to the IT environment.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A screened subnet is a network segment that separates two different environments, such asOT(operational technology) and IT (information technology), and provides security controls to limit and monitor the traffic between them. This would allow the business to get the required reports from the historian server without exposing theOTenvironment to unnecessary risks. Using a VPN, allowing IT traffic, or allowing PLCs to send data are less secure options that could compromise theOTenvironment. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-operational-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 129
Which of the following is a benefit of using steganalysis techniques in forensic response?
- A. Determining the frequency of unique attacks against DRM-protected media
- B. Maintaining chain of custody for acquired evidence
- C. Breaking a symmetric cipher used in secure voice communications
- D. Identifying least significant bit encoding of data in a .wav file
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 130
An organization requires a contractual document that includes
* An overview of what is covered
* Goals and objectives
* Performance metrics for each party
* A review of how the agreement is managed by all parties
Which of the following BEST describes this type of contractual document?
- A. SLA
- B. ISA
- C. BAA
- D. NDA
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Service Level Agreement is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of services to be provided, the metrics by which those services will be measured, and how the agreement will be managed by both parties. SLAs also include provisions for dispute resolution and for the termination of the agreement.
Reference: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide: Chapter 5: Security Testing, Section 5.7: Service Level Agreements.
NEW QUESTION # 131
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) needs to create a policy set that meets international standards for data privacy and sharing. Which of the following should the CISO read and understand before writing the policies?
- A. NIST
- B. GDPR
- C. PCI DSS
- D. ISO 31000
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 132
A new, online file hosting service is being offered. The service has the following security requirements:
* Threats to customer data integrity and availability should be remediated first.
* The environment should be dynamic to match increasing customer demands.
* The solution should not interfere with customers" ability to access their data at anytime.
* Security analysts should focus on high-risk items.
Which of the following would BEST satisfy the requirements?
- A. Increasing the number of analysts to Identify risks that need remediation
- B. Implementing a SOAR solution to address known threats
- C. Integrating enterprise threat feeds in the existing SIEM
- D. Expanding the use of IPS and NGFW devices throughout the environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, or denial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:
Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.
Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.
Not interfere with customers' ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.
Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.
NEW QUESTION # 133
After a security incident, a network security engineer discovers that a portion of the company's sensitive external traffic has been redirected through a secondary ISP that is not normally used.
Which of the following would BEST secure the routes while allowing the network to function in the event of a single provider failure?
- A. Disable BGP and implement a single static route for each internal network.
- B. Implement an inbound BGP prefix list.
- C. Implement a BGP route reflector.
- D. Disable BGP and implement OSPF.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 134
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