CPC PDF Dumps Real 2026 Recently Updated Questions
Released AAPC CPC Updated Questions PDF
AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Topic | Details |
|---|---|
| Topic 1 |
|
| Topic 2 |
|
| Topic 3 |
|
| Topic 4 |
|
| Topic 5 |
|
| Topic 6 |
|
| Topic 7 |
|
| Topic 8 |
|
| Topic 9 |
|
| Topic 10 |
|
| Topic 11 |
|
| Topic 12 |
|
NEW QUESTION # 79
(The documentation states: "A punch is placed and pushed downward to obtain a tissue sample for a biopsy of thelunula." What anatomical structure is being biopsied?)
- A. Brain
- B. Nail
- C. Skin
- D. Eye
Answer: B
Explanation:
Thelunulais the pale, crescent-shaped area visible at the base of some fingernails and toenails (most commonly the thumb). It is part of thenail unit, associated with the nail matrix where nail formation occurs.
Because the lunula is anail structure, a biopsy "of the lunula" is anail biopsy, even though a punch tool is also commonly used in skin biopsies. CPC exam questions frequently test precise anatomical vocabulary, especially for integumentary structures (skin, nail, hair). The distractors "eye" and "brain" are unrelated, and
"skin" is tempting because punch biopsies are typically skin procedures; however, the question specifically identifies thelunula, which is not a skin landmark. Coding and documentation accuracy depend on knowing these terms because nail procedures often have different code families and clinical considerations than routine skin biopsies. Correct identification starts by mapping the term to its anatomical system: lunula # nail apparatus.
NEW QUESTION # 80
An 87-year-old male with a history of atrioventricular block and prior dual-chamber pacemaker implantation presents to the cardiology clinic for an in-person device evaluation. The physician performs a full electronic analysis of the pacemaker system, assessing atrial and ventricular lead function, battery status, sensing thresholds, and pacing thresholds. After the assessment, the pacemaker settings are adjusted to optimize heart rate response. The patient tolerates the procedure well and is advised to return for routine follow-up.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
80324 - Drug test(s), definitive, qualitative or quantitative, LC/MS; acetaminophen LC-MS = definitive testing Acetaminophen is specifically identified by 80324 Why others are incorrect:
60143 / 80299 - Therapeutic drug assays (obsolete or nonspecific)
B0329 - HCPCS code (not appropriate here)
NEW QUESTION # 81
A 13-year-old established patient is seen for an annual preventive exam. Last visit was two years ago.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
99393 = Preventive visit, established patient, age 5-11
Preventive codes are based on age and patient status, not time since last visit
NEW QUESTION # 82
Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
Anesthesia: General.0
Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required □ limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition. There were no complications.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 12032, 11406-51
- B. 12002, 11606-51
- C. 12002, 11406-51
- D. 12032, 11606-51
Answer: A
Explanation:
The lesion is a benign congenital hairy nevus → benign lesion excision codes (11400-11446) Location: thigh (trunk/arms/legs) Excision size with margins = 4.5 cm → 11406 (4.1-5.0 cm) Closure length = 5 cm, layered closure with limited undermining → intermediate repair
12032 = Intermediate repair, trunk/extremities, 2.6-7.5 cm
Modifier -51 applies to the secondary procedure
NEW QUESTION # 83
Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
Anesthesia: General.0
Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition. There were no complications.
What E/M code is reported for this encounter?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Established patient with moderate MDM
99214 aligns with CPC exam standards
NEW QUESTION # 84
An interventional radiologist performs an abdominal paracentesis in his office utilizing ultrasonic imaging guidance to remove excess fluid. What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 49082, 76942
- C. 49082, 76942-26
- D. 49083, 76942-26
Answer: A
Explanation:
CPT code 49083 describes an abdominal paracentesis with imaging guidance, such as ultrasound. This code includes the imaging guidance as part of the procedure, so it is not necessary to separately report the ultrasonic guidance.
Reference:
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Code 49083
NEW QUESTION # 85
A 5-year-old who has an allergy history experienced a possible reaction to peanuts. A quantitative, high-sensitive fluorescent enzyme immunoassay was used to measure specific IgE for recombinant peanut components. Results showed there was no reaction indicating the child has a peanut allergy.
What lab test is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
For the quantitative, high-sensitive fluorescent enzyme immunoassay used to measure specific IgE for recombinant peanut components, the correct lab test code is 86003. This code is specific to quantitative allergen-specific IgE testing.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 86
A provider orders liquid chromatography mass spectrometry (LC-MS) definitive drug test for a patient suspected of acetaminophen (analgesic) overdose. What CPT code is reported for the test?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. B0329
- D. 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Frozen section pathology coding rules:
88331 - Frozen section, first tissue block, each specimen
88332 - Frozen section, each additional tissue block, same specimen
Breakdown:
Specimen 1
Block 1 → 88331 × 1
Block 2 → 88332 × 1
Specimen 2
Block 1 → 88331 × 1
Block 2 → 88332 × 1
However, multiple frozen sections per tissue block are separately reportable:
Total first blocks = 4 frozen sections → 88331 × 4
Total additional blocks = 3 frozen sections → 88332 × 3
CPT pathology guidelines require coding by tissue block and specimen, not by polyp alone.
NEW QUESTION # 87
What does PHI stand for in healthcare privacy regulations?
- A. Protected Health Information
- B. Private Health Index
- C. Patient Health Initiative
- D. Personal Hospital Insurance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Under HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), PHI stands for Protected Health Information. It includes any individually identifiable health information related to a patient's health status, provision of healthcare, or payment for healthcare. Protection of PHI is a key compliance topic on the CPC exam.
NEW QUESTION # 88
The CPT code book provides full descriptions of medical procedures, although some descriptions require the use of a semicolon (;) to distinguish among closely related procedures.
What is the full description of CPT code 69644?
- A. With intact or reconstructed canal wall with ossicular chain reconstruction
- B. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
- C. Without ossicular chain reconstruction with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
- D. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); without ossicular chain reconstruction with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
Answer: B
Explanation:
CPT code 69644 refers to a tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy, which includes canalplasty, middle ear surgery, and tympanic membrane repair. The specific procedure described by this code is performed with an intact or reconstructed canal wall and includes ossicular chain reconstruction. The use of a semicolon in the CPT description helps distinguish between different variations of the procedure.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition, specific code descriptions and guidelines.
NEW QUESTION # 89
(The physician performs adiagnostic ERCPof the common bile duct with insertion of astentinto the biliary duct. What CPT coding is reported?)
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 43275, 43274
- D. 43260, 43274
Answer: B
Explanation:
For ERCP, CPT coding follows the rule that thetherapeutic ERCP code includes the diagnostic ERCP workperformed during the same session. In this case, the key performed service isstent insertion into the biliary duct, which is captured by43274(ERCP with placement of endoscopic stent into biliary or pancreatic duct). You donotseparately report the diagnostic ERCP code43260when the therapeutic service (stent placement) is performed, because the diagnostic component is considered part of the overall ERCP service.
Code43276is used forstent removal and/or exchange, which is not described here. Option D is incorrect because it pairs another ERCP service with stent placement, and the scenario does not support multiple distinct ERCP therapeutic services beyond stenting. CPC exam tip: when a single ERCP session includes diagnostic evaluation plus a therapeutic intervention, report themost definitive therapeutic ERCP code-here,
43274.
NEW QUESTION # 90
A witness of a traffic accident called 911. An ambulance with emergency basic life support arrived at the scene of the accident. The injured party was stabilized and taken to the hospital. What HCPCS Level II coding is reported for the ambulance's service?
- A. A0429-QN-SH
- B. A0426-QN-SH
- C. A0427-QM-HS
- D. A0428-QM-HS
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 91
(A patient visits her provider's office because she is experiencing persistent headaches. Her provider sends her to a radiology facility to do aCT scan of the brain without contrast. The images are sent to the provider, and the providerreads and interpretsthe scan. What CPT coding of the radiology service is reported by the provider?)
- A. 70450-TC
- B. 70450-26-TC
- C. 0
- D. 70450-26
Answer: D
Explanation:
CPT70450describes aCT of the head/brain without contrast. When aradiology facilityperforms the technical portion (scanner, technologist, supplies) and theprovider only interprets and reportsthe study, the provider bills theprofessional componentusing modifier-26. That is exactly what the vignette describes: the radiology facility performed the scan, and the provider received images and provided the interpretation-so the provider reports70450-26. Reporting70450alone would imply billing the global service (professional + technical), which would be incorrect because the provider did not supply the equipment/technical resources. Modifier- TCis used to bill thetechnical component, which would be reported by the facility, not the interpreting provider in this scenario. Modifier-26-TCtogether is not appropriate because it would contradict itself (professional and technical simultaneously). CPC exam tip: always determinewho performedthe technical work andwho interpreted; then use-26for interpretation-only billing.
NEW QUESTION # 92
Where is a Warthin's tumor found?
- A. Back of eye
- B. Bone
- C. Ovary
- D. Salivary gland
Answer: D
Explanation:
Warthin's tumor, also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, is a benign tumor of the salivary glands, most commonly affecting the parotid gland. It typically presents as a painless, slow-growing mass near the angle of the jaw.References: ICD-10-CM, medical dictionaries, and oncology textbooks
NEW QUESTION # 93
View MR 002395
MR 002395
Operative Report
Pre-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear
Post-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear, synovitis
Procedures:
1) Rotator cuff repair
2) Biceps Tenodesis
3) Claviculectomy
4) Coracoacromial ligament release
Indication: Rotator cuff injury of a 32-year-old male, sustained while playing soccer.
Findings: Complete tear of the right rotator cuff, synovitis, impingement.
Procedure: The patient was prepared for surgery and placed in left lateral decubitus position. Standard posterior arthroscopy portals were made followed by an anterior-superior portal. Diagnostic arthroscopy was performed. Significant synovitis was carefully debrided. There was a full-thickness upper 3rd subscapularis tear, which was repaired. The lesser tuberosity was debrided back to bleeding healthy bone and a Mitek 4.5 mm helix anchor was placed in the lesser tuberosity. Sutures were passed through the subcapulans in a combination of horizontal mattress and simple interrupted fashion and then tied. There was a partial-thickness tearing of the long head of the biceps. The biceps were released and then anchored in the intertubercular groove with a screw. There was a large anterior acromial spur with subacromial impingement. A CA ligament was released and acromioplasty was performed. Attention was then directed to the supraspinatus tendon tear. The tear was V-shaped and measured approximately 2.5 cm from anterior to posterior. Two Smith & Nephew PEEK anchors were used for the medial row utilizing Healicoil anchors.
Side-to-side stitches were placed. One set of suture tape from each of the medial anchors was then placed through a laterally placed Mitek helix PEEK knotless anchor which was fully inserted after tensioning the tapes. A solid repair was obtained. Next there were severe degenerative changes at the AC joint of approximately 8 to 10 mm. The distal clavicle was resected taking care to preserve the superior AC joint capsule. The shoulder was thoroughly lavaged. The instruments were removed and the incisions were closed in routine fashion. Sterile dressing was applied. The patient was transferred to recovery in stable condition.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?
- A. 29827, 29828-51, 29824-51, 29826
- B. 29827, 29828-51, 29824-51, 29826, 29805-59
- C. 29827, 29824-51, 29826-51
- D. 29827, 29824-51, 29826-51, 29805-59
Answer: A
Explanation:
29827: Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair is correctly coded as 29827.
29828: Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis is an additional procedure and should be coded as 29828 with modifier
-51 (Multiple Procedures).
29824: Arthroscopic claviculectomy (partial resection of the distal clavicle) is coded as 29824 with modifier
-51.
29826: Arthroscopic subacromial decompression, including coracoacromial ligament release, is coded as
29826.
All these procedures were performed arthroscopically and documented in the operative report, justifying the use of these codes and the use of modifier -51 for multiple procedures.
CPT Professional Edition, AMA
NEW QUESTION # 94
(A 32-year-old visited a provider due to ongoing irritation and watering in his left eye. Suspecting an allergy, the provider carried out a test, introducing an allergenic extract into the mucous membrane inner lining of the eye. The patient's eye is monitored for signs of an allergic reaction, such as redness and itching. What CPT code is reported?)
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
This scenario describesconjunctival provocation testing: an allergenic extract is placed into theconjunctival mucous membraneof the eye and the patient is observed for a localized allergic response (redness, itching, tearing). CPT95060is the code that representsconjunctival (ophthalmic) allergy testing/provocation. The distractors are other allergy testing codes that do not match the site and method described. For CPC exam logic, the key is identifying theroute/siteof allergen exposure: not intradermal (skin), not percutaneous prick, not inhalation/bronchial challenge-this is specificallyocular mucosal testing. The wording "introduced into the mucous membrane inner lining of the eye" is the classic cue. Also note that the code selection is driven by thetype of test, not the suspected diagnosis alone. Therefore, conjunctival provocation testing is correctly reported with95060, and the other options represent different categories of allergy testing or challenge methods.
NEW QUESTION # 95
A 55-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with an enlarged goiter. It has been two years since her last visit to the endocrinologist. A new doctor in the exact same specialty group will be examining her. The physician performs a medically appropriate history and exam. The provider reviewed the TSH results and ultrasound.
The provider orders a fine needle aspiration biopsy which is a minor procedure.
What E/M code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient is seeing a new doctor in the same specialty group for an enlarged goiter and is undergoing a medically appropriate history and exam, along with a fine needle aspiration biopsy.
* Procedure Description:
* Medically appropriate history and exam.
* Review of TSH results and ultrasound.
* Ordering of fine needle aspiration biopsy.
* CPT Coding:
* 99202: Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient, which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and straightforward medical decision making.
Since it has been two years since the last visit and the patient is being seen by a new doctor in the same specialty group, the encounter is considered a new patient visit.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
* CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on evaluation and management services.
NEW QUESTION # 96
The spleen is in what organ system?
- A. Nervous
- B. Endocrine
- C. Lymphatic
- D. Digestive
Answer: C
Explanation:
The spleen is a part of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for filtering blood, removing damaged blood cells, and supporting immune function. The spleen contains lymphocytes that help fight infections and regulate the immune response.
A: Nervous: The nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, unrelated to immune function.
B: Endocrine: The endocrine system regulates hormones through glands like the thyroid and pancreas, not directly involved with blood filtration or immune cell production.
C: Digestive: While the spleen is located near digestive organs, it does not play a role in digestion.
Thus, the correct answer is D. Lymphatic.
NEW QUESTION # 97
A 4-year-old, critically ill child is admitted to the PICU from the ED with respiratory failure due to an exacerbation of asthma not manageable in the ER. The PICU provider takes over the care of the patient and starts continuous bronchodilator therapy and pharmacologic support with cardiovascular monitoring and possible mechanical ventilation support.
What is the E/M code for this encounter?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 98
(An 8-day-old newborn, weighing 3 kilograms, is seen for a circumcision. A numbing cream is applied. A circumferential incision is made and the foreskin is excised with a scalpel. What CPT coding is reported?)
- A. 0
- B. 54150-52
- C. 54160-63
- D. 1
Answer: A
Explanation:
Newborn circumcision coding depends primarily on whether the circumcision is performed using aclamp
/device techniqueversus asurgical excision technique. CPT54150is commonly associated with circumcision using a clamp or other device method (often described with a Gomco/Mogen-type approach in many training contexts). In contrast, CPT54160representssurgical circumcisionusing acircumferential incisionwith excision of the foreskin-matching the documentation ("circumferential incision... foreskin excised with a scalpel").
The infant's age (8 days old) supports that this is a newborn service, but the decisive factor in this vignette is thetechnique described. Modifier-52(reduced services) is not supported because the full circumcision service is performed. Modifier-63applies to procedures performed on infants less than 4 kg for certain CPT codes when applicable, but it is not universally appended and is not the best answer here given typical CPC exam expectations for standard newborn circumcision technique identification. Therefore,54160is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 99
The pulmonologist performs a bronchoscopy with fluoroscopic guidance. The scope is introduced into the right nostril and advanced to the vocal cords and into the trachea. The scope is advanced to the right upper lobe and a lung nodule is noted. An endobronchial biopsy is performed.
What CPT code is reported for the procedure?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 100
An 8-year-old undergoes tonsillectomy with adenoidectomy for chronic tonsillitis and adenoiditis with hypertrophy.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
- A. 42820, J35.03, J35.3
- B. 42825, 42830, J35.03, J35.3
- C. 42825, 42830, J35.03
- D. 42820, J35.03
Answer: D
Explanation:
42820 = Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy, under age 12
J35.03 already includes chronic tonsillitis and adenoiditis
Hypertrophy is included and not separately coded
NEW QUESTION # 101
......
CPC Dumps and Practice Test (451 Exam Questions): https://actualtests.dumpsquestion.com/CPC-exam-dumps-collection.html